In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: · why do we say gbp instead of ukp? A man has a winkle and a woman has a tuppence. · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation. · the question is: Also, if you say … It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. Why do people use the latter terminology? In french, avant j. c. … · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. Ask question asked 14 years, modified But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two … Ask question asked 7 years, modified 4 years, As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. For one thing, i find it confusing. Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the … What i dont understand is why. On one hand, those are two presumably independent contributors giving the same definition. Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. Another word for a females vagina. · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant.