In french, avant j. c. (before … Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the name … · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation. What i dont understand is why. · the question is: As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms, … Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. On one hand, those are two presumably independent contributors giving the same definition. Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? A man has a winkle and a woman has a tuppence. It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. Ask question asked 14 years, modified · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. Another word for a females vagina. · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. Why do people use the latter terminology? For one thing, i find it confusing. Ask question asked 7 years, modified 4 years, In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: Also, if you say today … · why do we say gbp instead of ukp?