· the question is: A man has a winkle and a woman has a tuppence. In french, avant j. c. (before … What i dont understand is why. Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the name … · why do we say gbp instead of ukp? For one thing, i find it confusing. But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms, … Ask question asked 7 years, modified 4 years, It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. Why do people use the latter terminology? · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation. Also, if you say today … On one hand, those are two presumably independent contributors giving the same definition. Another word for a females vagina. Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. Ask question asked 14 years, modified · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: