There is no letter o in number, so where does this spelling come from? Ask question asked 14 years, modified Its distribution is very limited – it can only have the word reason as its antecedent, and since its never the subject its always deletable. What i dont understand is why. It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation. I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two … · you might as well ask why verbs have a past tense, why nouns have plural forms, why nouns are not verbs, why we use prepositions, etc. Also, if you say … Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. Why do people use the latter terminology? In french, avant j. c. … · the spelling of number is number, but the abbreviation is no (№). Simply because that’s an integral … · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: · why is a just a rather odd wh -word. For one thing, i find it confusing. As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with.