Ask question asked 7 years, modified 4 years, · why do we say gbp instead of ukp? · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two … In french, avant j. c. … Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. Why do people use the latter terminology? I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. On one hand, those are two presumably independent contributors giving the same definition. · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation. For one thing, i find it confusing. Also, if you say … Another word for a females vagina. What i dont understand is why. Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the … Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. A man has a winkle and a woman has a tuppence. It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. · the question is: Ask question asked 14 years, modified As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: