· the question is: · why do we say gbp instead of ukp? In french, avant j. c. … · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation. Another word for a females vagina. But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two … Why did the english adapt the name pineapple from spanish (which originally meant pinecone in english) while most european countries eventually adapted the … I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: What i dont understand is why. A man has a winkle and a woman has a tuppence. Also, if you say … On one hand, those are two presumably independent contributors giving the same definition. For one thing, i find it confusing. Why do people use the latter terminology? · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? Ask question asked 14 years, modified Ask question asked 7 years, modified 4 years, · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii;