Simply because that’s an integral … Why do people use the latter terminology? What i dont understand is why. Ask question asked 14 years, modified In non-english speaking countries, they tended to use the local language: It doesnt help that bce is similar to bc. · you might as well ask why verbs have a past tense, why nouns have plural forms, why nouns are not verbs, why we use prepositions, etc. · i understand that the word spook is a racial slur that rose in usage during wwii; I dont know why, but it seems to me that bob would sound a bit strange if he said, why is it that you have to get going? in that situation. As jimi oke points out, it doesnt matter what letter the word starts with, but what sound it starts with. I also know germans called black gunners spookwaffe. In french, avant j. c. (before … For one thing, i find it confusing. Also, if you say today … But moreover, there is only one letter of difference between the two terms, … Why is c*nt so much more derogatory in the us than the uk? · why is a just a rather odd wh -word. There is no letter o in number, so where does this spelling come from? · the spelling of number is number, but the abbreviation is no (№). Since usual starts with a y sound, it should take a instead of an. · while americans (and possibly others) pronounce this as loo-tenant, folks from the uk pronounce it as lef-tenant. Its distribution is very limited – it can only have the word reason as its antecedent, and since its never the subject its always deletable. · why the terminology changed from latin to english is a matter of speculation.